(Evidential) Arguments for Theism: The Ontological Argument

 

ST. ANSELM (1033-1109)

His Ontological Argument

The Paradox of Atheism

Initial Criticisms Of Anselm’s Argument

·         Gaunilo

·         St. Thomas Aquinas

·         David Hume

Immanuel Kant’s Criticism of the Ontological Argument

That's not quite the end of the Argument though: The Second Formulation

Epilogue: Where does that leave us?

·         Alvin Plantinga

 

 


 

(Evidential) Arguments for Theism: The Ontological Argument

 

ST. ANSELM (1033-1109)

 

Refers to the fool (that hath said in his heart, ‘There is no God.’).  Takes as his inspiration the Psalms, but does not rely on faith for justification, only natural reason.

 

Psalms

Psalms 53:1 “The fool hath said in his heart, [There is] no God. Corrupt are they, and have done abominable iniquity: [there is] none that doeth good.)

 

Anselm attempts to show that that only a fool would claim that God does not exist. He wished to demonstrate that if you really think carefully about the concept of God you realize that God must exist; understanding the nature God is enough that convince us any clear thinking person that He must exist.  Because this argument is meant to show that "being" is part of God's nature, it is called an:

 

Ontological Argument

 

Late Greek, from Greek ōnont-, present participle of einai, “to be.”

 

“Being”

 

Thus “Ontology” is the “Study of Being.”  A general theory of being/ existence.

 

Ontological Argument:  An a priori attempt to prove the being of God from an examination of His nature. (His essence is existence).[i]

 

It is logical and a prioi in nature (as opposed to empirical).

 

Begins by examining the Atheist Contention "God does not exist."

 

But, when the Atheist denies the existence of God, what does the Atheist mean by “God?”  If the atheist is merely denying the existence of “Zeus” or “Odin” etc. then Anselm doesn’t have a problem with that.  There is only a dispute between the Atheist and Anselm if they have the same concept of God in mind. 

 

Anselm proposes a “definition” of God:

 

"God" means "That then which nothing greater can be conceived."

 

Either the Atheist can reject the definition in which case the Atheist is NOT denying the existence of Anselm's God (because they really are not talking about the same thing), or the Atheist can accept Anselm's definition.

 

Here is a schematic of the argument:

 

Premises

Justification

1. God is that than which nothing greater can be conceived.

Definition of God- (for St. Anselm & the Atheist -God is O‑God);

2. It is greater to exist in understanding and in reality than it is to exist in understanding alone.

Metaphysical principle- i.e. clear to commonsense.

 

Consider: Which is greater, the 100 dollar bill that only exists in your mind or the 100 dollar bill that exists in your mind and in your back pocket?

 

3. That than which nothing greater can be conceived must exist in the understanding and in reality.

Follows from 2.

 

Otherwise It would not be “that then which nothing greater can be conceived” since it would be flawed (less great then if it did in fact exist in both the understanding and in reality) and thus we could think of something greater, i.e. without that flaw.

 

4. God exists in the Understanding and in reality.

 

Follows from 1 & 3 by substitution of co-referring terms.

 

According to Anselm, the Atheist is left claiming that:

 

“God (who by definition does/must exist in the understanding and in reality) does not exist in reality.

 

or

 

"That then which nothing greater can be conceived" is "is something than which something greater can be conceived."

 

But of course, this is Foolish; the only person who would say something like that is someone who literally doesn’t know what he’s talking about. 

 

Consider this.  I might tell you that I can conceive of a four-sided triangle.  But while I may say this and even believe this, you would know whatever I might be thinking of, either it’s NOT a triangle or it DOESN’T have four sides.  But there’s no way it could be both four sided and triangular and I must be a FOOL for thinking otherwise. 

 

Likewise, according to Anselm, whatever the Atheist is thinking about, either it does exist or it’s not God (i.e. that then which nothing greater can be conceived), but there’s no way to truly conceive of God as not existing.

 

Anselm's Argument is meant to be an a priori proof of existence of God.

 

A priori: knowable, independent of experience or empirical confirmation.

 

The Paradox of Atheism

 

An "Ontological Argument" claims that that if just think about what we mean by “God,” (i.e. God’s nature, His definition or essence), then it becomes clear to us that He must exists.

 

Another way a putting the argument is to say

 

1.

1. God is a being with all perfections

Def. Of God

2.

2. Existence is a perfection. 

Obviously true that a thing with existence is greater than one without it.

therefore:

3.

3. God has existence.

From 1 & 2

 

The idea is this:  The definition is such that it always points to the “greater” conception of God.  For any two conceptions of God, by definition, Anselm (and the Atheist too for that matter) means the greater of the two.  Take two god-conceptions A & B: Zeus and the O-God for instance. 

 

God A

> 

God B

O-God

 

Zeus

 

Since God B (Zeus) is less perfect than God A (O-God), God B is NOT TTWNGCBC.  Whatever Anselm and the atheist are referring to, it’s NOT God B (Zeus) since God B is flawed.  Maybe TTWNGCBC isn’t God A either, if it turns out one can think of something greater, but it certainly isn’t Zeus. 

 

Well the same can be said for the difference between a Non-existing O-God and an Existing O-God, according to Anselm.  Just as Zeus simply cannot be what either Anselm or the Atheist mean by God, given their shared definition/understanding since as we have seen, Zeus is not TTWNGCBC, so too, neither can mean a Non-existing O-God.

 

God A

> 

God B

O-God which exists in the understanding and in reality

 

O-God which exists in the understanding alone

 

 

 

But…

 

 

Again, since God B is less perfect than God A (not as great/ “A” is greater), God B is NOT TTWNGCBC.  God B simply cannot be what either Anselm or the Atheist mean by “God,” given their shared definition/understanding.  At a minimum, they both mean God A.  But if this is so, look at what the Atheist is committed to saying:

 

“The O-God, which by definition we know exists in the understanding and in reality, does not exist in reality.”

 

Alternatively

 

“That than which nothing greater can be conceived is that than which something greater can be conceived.”

 

Pretty foolish, eh?

 

Initial Criticisms

 

This argument drew criticism immediately, even from those inclined to think that the conclusion was TRUE.  They just thought that the argument itself did not work.

 

 

Gaunilo (or Gaunillon)

Gaunilo, an 11th century Benedictine monk and contemporary of Anselm, wrote In Behalf of the Fool[1], where he contends that Anselm's argument fails.  According to Gaunilo, the same sort of argument could be used to “prove” all sorts of absurd things.  As an empiricist, Gaunilo thought that the human intellect is only able to gather information about what does and does not exist through the senses.[2]

 

To this end he offers a counter-argument to demonstrate the weakness of Anselm’s reasoning here.

 

He asks that we consider the “most perfect island.”

 

1.

1. The Most Perfect Island has all perfections

-Def. of most perfect

2.

2. Existence is a perfection. 

–Obviously true that a thing with existence is greater then one without it.

therefore:

3.

3. The Most Perfect Island has existence.

From 1 & 2

 

But this is ridiculous.  We cannot know that there exists a Most Perfect Island a priori, that is, simply by its definition. 

 

NB: Gaunilo has not precisely said what is wrong with Anselm’s argument; rather, he gives an argument with the same form and nearly the same premises, but which concludes with an unknowable claim.  He is saying that we can clearly see the conclusion of his arguments is unsupported and so, by parity of reason, must regard the conclusion of Anselm’s argument as equally unsupported.

 

St. Thomas Aquinas (c. 1225 – 1274)

 

Likewise, St. Thomas Aquinas, also an empiricist, criticizes this argument[3] by claiming “One cannot prove the existence of anything a priori.”

 

Objection 2. Further, those things are said to be self-evident which are known as soon as the terms are known, which the Philosopher (1 Poster. iii) says is true of the first principles of demonstration. Thus, when the nature of a whole and of a part is known, it is at once recognized that every whole is greater than its part. But as soon as the signification of the word "God" is understood, it is at once seen that God exists. For by this word is signified that thing than which nothing greater can be conceived. But that which exists actually and mentally is greater than that which exists only mentally. Therefore, since as soon as the word "God" is understood it exists mentally, it also follows that it exists actually. Therefore the proposition "God exists" is self-evident.

 

This (the above) is Aquinas’s rendering of Anselm’s Argument which he is about to criticize.

 

(But) I answer that,… (Aquinas’ own opinion on the matter)

 

A thing can be self-evident in either of two ways: on the one hand, self-evident in itself, though not to us; on the other, self-evident in itself, and to us. A proposition is self-evident because the predicate is included in the essence of the subject, as "Man is an animal," for animal is contained in the essence of man. If, therefore the essence of the predicate and subject be known to all, the proposition will be self-evident to all; as is clear with regard to the first principles of demonstration, the terms of which are common things that no one is ignorant of, such as being and non-being, whole and part, and such like.

 

If, however, there are some to whom the essence of the predicate and subject is unknown, the proposition will be self-evident in itself, but not to those who do not know the meaning of the predicate and subject of the proposition. Therefore, it happens, as Boethius says (Hebdom., the title of which is: "Whether all that is, is good"), "that there are some mental concepts self-evident only to the learned, as that incorporeal substances are not in space." Therefore I say that this proposition, "God exists," of itself is self-evident, for the predicate is the same as the subject, because God is His own existence as will be hereafter shown (3, 4). Now because we do not know the essence of God, the proposition is not self-evident to us; but needs to be demonstrated by things that are more known to us, though less known in their nature — namely, by effects.

 

Reply to Objection 2. Perhaps not everyone who hears this word "God" understands it to signify something than which nothing greater can be thought, seeing that some have believed God to be a body. Yet, granted that everyone understands that by this word "God" is signified something than which nothing greater can be thought, nevertheless, it does not therefore follow that he understands that what the word signifies exists actually, but only that it exists mentally. Nor can it be argued that it actually exists, unless it be admitted that there actually exists something than which nothing greater can be thought; and this precisely is not admitted by those who hold that God does not exist. [4]

 

Peter Kreeft and Matt Fradd discussing this.

 

David Hume

 

David Hume (1711 –1776), the Scottish empiricist philosopher, historian, economist, and essayist,  does not address the argument directly, but can be seen to have said much the same thing indirectly in his Dialogues Concerning Natural Religion:

 

Part IX (Page 92)

 

·         I shall begin with observing, that there is an evident absurdity in pretending to demonstrate a matter of fact, or to prove it by any arguments a priori. Nothing is demonstrable (a priori –my addition)), unless the contrary implies a contradiction. Nothing, that is distinctly conceivable, implies a contradiction. Whatever we conceive as existent, we can also conceive as non-existent. There is no being, therefore, whose non- existence implies a contradiction. Consequently there is no being, whose existence is demonstrable (a priori). I propose this argument as entirely decisive, and am willing to rest the whole controversy upon it.

 

He is saying, in essence:

 

1.       To prove any proposition “P” (e.g. “God exists.” or what have you) a priori requires proving that its opposite "~P" entails a logical contradiction.

2.       The non-existence of anything (including God) can be conceived clearly.

3.       Anything which can be conceived clearly entails no logical contradiction.

4.       The non-existence of anything, including God, entails no logical contradiction.

Therefore:

5.       One cannot prove the existence of God a priori.

 

Immanuel Kant’s Criticism of the Ontological Argument

 

While all these aforementioned objections (Gaunilo’s, Aquinas’ and Hume’s) are directed at the argument, none precisely says what wrong with his argument.  Note, they do not precisely specify which of the premises in this valid argument is/are false and why.  (Don’t you try that is your papers for me!J)

 

Actually David Hume does actually comes quite close to Kant’s own critique in another work if his when Hume states:

 

"...to reflect on anything simply, and to reflect on it as existent, are nothing different from each other. That idea (“existence”- my addition), when conjoin'd with the idea of any object, makes no addition to it."[5]

 

Recall I claimed that one might usefully understand Anselm’s argument as saying essentially this:

 

1.

1. God is a being with all perfections

Def. Of God

2.

2. Existence is a perfection. 

Obviously true that a thing with existence is greater than one without it.

therefore:

3.

3. God has existence.

From 1 & 2

 

Immanuel Kant actually identifies the troublesome premise. (#2)  Kant claims that "existence" is not a great-making property (perfection) because it is not a property at all.  Therefore, according to Kant, premise 2 is false.  Existence is NOT a perfection.  To tell me that a thing “exists” (has existence) simply does not describe the thing at all, good bad or indifferent.

 

Consider the following scenario: let’s say we are hiring a new instructor in philosophy.  This happens far too infrequently here at FIU and who knows what we will be able to do this again, so we want to make you we are hiring the best.  To that end, we set up two search committees, each charged with coming up will a list of desired qualities this new hire is to have.  The committees are formed (A and B) to construct a list of required qualifications. 

 

The committees come up with the following two lists, one of which lists three attributes, the other listing four.

 


List A

 

List B

Good Teacher

Good Teacher

Knowledgeable about Philosophy

Knowledgeable about Philosophy

Enthusiastic

Enthusiastic

 

Exists

 

But this is silly.  These do not amount to two different descriptions at all.  They describe all and only the same things.  Anything which satisfies A satisfies B and the other way around.  The addition of “exists” to the end of the list MAKES NO DIFFERENCE to the thing being described. (See Hume quote above.)

 

But consider:  What if the committees had come up with these lists?

 

List A

 

List B

Good Teacher

Good Teacher

Knowledgeable about Philosophy

Knowledgeable about Philosophy

Enthusiastic

Enthusiastic

 

Bilingual

 

Now A and B do not pick out all and only the same things because bilingual is a REAL, descriptive property.  It makes a difference to the two lists in a way that “existence” does not.

 

Remember my rendering of Anselm’s argument:

 

1.

1. God is a being with all perfections

Def. Of God

2.

2. Existence is a perfection. 

Obviously true that a thing with existence is greater than one without it.

therefore:

3.

3. God has existence.

From 1 & 2

 

But Kant is pointing out that existence is not a descriptive property and cannot make something “better” or “worse.”

 

Therefore existence is not a great-making property (perfection).

Therefore premise 2 is false.

Therefore the Ontological Argument fails.

 

The conclusion may well be true, but this argument is insufficient to establish it.

 

 

But if this is so…

 

 

The atheist's concept of God is in no way inferior to Anselm’s concept of God. Indeed they have exactly the same concept in mind. The dispute between them is not the description of God, but whether that description is satisfied by any existing thing in the world or not.

 

That's not quite the end of the Argument though: The Second Formulation

 

So that’s the end of things right?

 

No.

 

That's not quite the end of the Argument though.

 

The Second Formulation:

 

Anselm may not have even noticed, but in his response to Guanilo, Anselm actually gives a second significantly different formulation of his ontological argument.  Anselm claims his argument can in principle only work for God.  This, he says, is because even the most perfect island would, nevertheless, be a contingent object.  It would have contingent –conditional- existence, that is, be limited in time and space and depend on other factors for its beginning and ending in time and space.  For all we know, we are not living at the same time as the most perfect island, or history/ geology did not go the right way to bring about the most perfect island.  Therefore, Guanilo is right to say we cannot know a priori that such an island exists. 

 

But… according to Anselm, God has unconditional, unlimited existence.  God, by definition would not only have existence, but rather Necessary Existence

 

Necessary Existence: Unlimited or unconditioned existence.  A thing has necessary existence if its existence not limited by anything and depends on no other thing/cause.

 

Contingent Existence: Limited or conditional existence.  A thing has contingent existence if its existence limited in some way and/or depends on other things or causes.

 

Now we have Formulation #2:

 

1. God is a being with all perfections -(Def. Of God)

2. Necessary Existence is perfection.  –(Obviously true that a thing with necessary existence is greater then one without it)

 

therefore:

 

3. God has Necessary Existence.

 

And Necessary Existence is a Descriptive Property

 

List A

 

List B

Good Teacher

Good Teacher

Knowledgeable about Philosophy

Knowledgeable about Philosophy

Enthusiastic

Enthusiastic

 

Necessary Existence

 

Now A and B do not pick out the all and only the same things because Necessary Existence is a REAL, descriptive property.  It makes a difference to the two lists in a way that ordinary garden-variety “existence” does not.

 

Epilogue: Where does that leave us?

 

Perhaps only with a conditional;

 

If God exists then He would have necessary existence, but it remains to be seen whether or not He exists.

 

This acknowledges that necessary existence is a great-making descriptive property, like omni-benevolence or omniscience, but the definition only tells us that God would have these properties if he exists. If God exists He would have omniscience, but that does not show that He exists.  Likewise, if God exists He would have necessary existence, but this does not prove that He in fact exists. 

 

Notice, with any of the other perfections ascribed to God by definition, this is how it works.  If God exists, then He would be all-knowing, and if God exists, then He would be all-powerful.  Likewise, Anselm's second formulation can be said to have only shown, if God exists, then He would have necessary existence.

 

Still there is something fishy about saying “IF... the Necessary Being Exists.” After all, what might have happened which would have prevented the Necessary Being from existing?  His parents decided not the have kids after all?  Evolution didn’t of the right way? The universal gravitational constant was off a few points?  But none of that would matter to a necessary being.  By definition, the necessary being would not depend on anything for its existence  and thus nothing can prevent a necessary being from existing.  So why entertain the doubt?

Alvin Plantinga and the Ontological Argument

 

Perhaps the most prominent modern advocate of the ontological argument is Alvin Plantinga.

Plantinga’s best-known for his philosophical apologetics for theism is his contention that theistic  belief is “properly basic” (i.e. that religious belief does not stand in need of external justification), but he is also known for his work on modal logic, (i.e. on the logic of possibility and necessity).

Plantinga applies his approach to modal logic to the ontological argument, presenting the argument in a revised form.

 

He contends that, given certain widely accepted systems of formal modal logic, one can create a formally valid version of Anselm’s argument. 

In summary it goes like this:

 

  1. It is possible that the proposition “The O-God exists.” is necessarily true.
  2. Therefore, there is a possible world in which the proposition “The O-God exists.” Is necessarily true.
  3. Therefore, there exists a possible world where the proposition “It is true in all possible worlds that the O-God exists.” is true. (That is what is means to say the proposition is necessarily true in any possible world.)
  4. Therefore, it is true in all possible worlds that the proposition “The O-God exists.” is true.
  5. Our world is a possible world.
  6. Therefore, it is true in our world that the proposition “The O-God exists.” is true.
  7. Q.E.D. The O-God exists.

 

However…

 

This defense requires:

 

  1. buying into modal logic in general, “possible world discourse” as a means of explicating these modal terms and…
  2. accepting as a theorem of this system of modal logic that, if it is possible that some proposition P is necessarily true, then it is true that proposition is necessarily true (true in all possible worlds).[6]

 

But perhaps the most vulnerable presumption of this argument is the claim that we have positive knowledge that a necessary being (God) is in fact possible. 

 

Plantinga’s defense has been challenged on all these grounds.

 



[1] The title of Gaunilo's book repeats Anselm's use of the fool who doubts the existence of God in Psalms 53.

[2] As we shall, the is yet another battle in the centuries-long war between Rationalism and Empiricism.

[3] In his Summa Theologica: Question 2. The existence of God, Article 1 Whether the existence of God is self-evident?

[4] Summa Theologica: Question 2. The existence of God Article 1. Is the proposition "God exists" self-evident?

[5]  Hume, David A Treatise of Human Nature, Bk. I, Pt. II, sec. 6.]

[6] It also requires that one accepts the existence of such things as. “Propositions”. But that is a whole other. Philosophical, can of worms that I don't wish to open at this time.



[i] From Quora Post 

If the Hebrew name "YHWH" means "I AM THAT I AM" in English, which among the four Hebrew letters mean "I AM"?

Profile photo for Pamela B. Zohar

 

Pamela B. Zohar

 

I read a lot and studied - and I take Judaism seriously.

Updated Jan 9, 2021

 

None of them.

Your question relies on a misunderstanding of how Hebrew works.

The four letter name of God - often transliterated into English as ‘yhwh’ is, in Hebrew, four letters.

All the letters are consonants, because in Hebrew, all letters are consonants - vowel sounds are not, typically, letters in Hebrew and never appear.

That said, the word represented by ‘yhwh’ can, in normal Hebrew, be rendered in more than one way in Hebrew, depending on how you pronounce it - that is, which vowels you use and where.

ONE of the ways you MIGHT legitimately pronounce that word ends up as a single word which could mean ‘I am’ (in the sense of ‘I exist’).

It could also be rendered as ‘I was’ or even as ‘I will be’.

All of those are single words in Hebrew, because that is how Hebrew works.

Hebrew works on a system of tri-literal (three letter) roots which ‘build’ into words of different meanings through prefixes, suffixes and changes in the vowels.

The ‘root’ of yhwh is the ‘hwh’ letters, which - at root, so to speak - mean ‘beingness, existence’.

Bottom line, absolutely NOBODY knows what the four letter name ‘means’ except that it is the Name of God. Grammatically, it is a verb. That’s important (most names are not verbs).

So the translation ‘I am that I am’ or ‘I am, was, and will be’ - those are all simply different readings, none of them any better than any other.

But none of the letters ‘stand for’ some other word. It isn’t an acronym, and it isn’t a phrase. In Hebrew, yhwh is ONE word, a verb, and the root of it is ‘exist, being’ - the verb ‘to be’ (in English). That it is first person singular is simply the grammatical form. (I am reminded - it is third person singular - probably. It’s a verb - already an odd thing for a ‘name’.)

The way Biblical Hebrew handles time is not the way English handles time. English divides time into ‘past, present and future’, but Biblical Hebrew divides time into the ideas of ‘past action completed and over with’ (perfect), and ‘actions not completed and over with’(imperfect) - which can include past, present AND future.

Grammatically, yhwh is -

singular, action not completed and over with’ and the root meaning is ‘exist, being’ - the verb ‘to be’.

So the word yhwh has something to do with existence and beingness, and that existence and beingness is not something over and done with, but exists ‘now’ and presumably existed ‘before now’ and also is going to exist ‘after now’ - always bearing in mind that, without knowing how the vowel sounds should apply, we don’t actually know if we are quite exactly right - or not. However, there are not infinite possibilities, so we have a low number of possibilities.

So - do you kind of see how a translator might end up with ‘I am that I am’?

It is not, I think, a particularly GOOD translation, but seriously, there really IS no particularly good translation into English to be had.

Too many people who speak only one language think every language works the same as the one they know, and all you have to do is plug in the appropriate word for the other word, and bingo, translated.

Sorry. That isn’t how anything actually works, unless the languages are very, very closely related - and even then, there are differences. German and English are reasonably close, but in German I live in a street, not on it, and the idiomatic expressions are totally different.

Hebrew and English are not closely related.

Edit to add this comment from a reader:

Could I add that some scholars argue that the tetragrammaton reflects the causative form of the Hebrew verb “to become” and, therefore, believe it should be translated as “he causes to become.” This would seem to fit quite well with God's being the creator of all things and fulfiller of his purpose.